ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracostomy and/or chest tube placement as treatment to which component of the pathophysiology of the condition?
- A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the lungs to exchange gases.
- B. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib
- C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space affecting both the lungs and heart.
- D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is characterized by a large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, creating pressure that affects both the lungs and heart. This condition can lead to life-threatening consequences by shifting mediastinal structures and impairing cardiac function. Treatment involves decompressing the trapped air to relieve the tension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the primary pathophysiological mechanism of tension pneumothorax, which is the accumulation of air in the pleural space, not blood, rib fractures, or alveolar fluid accumulation.
2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.
3. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?
- A. Reduction in red blood cell count
- B. Decreased number of infections
- C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
- D. Increase in white blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.
4. Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.
- A. The spleen
- B. Peyer's patches
- C. Adenoids
- D. The liver
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.
5. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
- B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
- D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.
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