a client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications
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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

2. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS is to provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration. ALS causes muscle weakness, including the muscles used for swallowing, increasing the risk of aspiration. Providing proper nutrition and support can help prevent this complication. Administering muscle relaxants (Choice A) may not be suitable for ALS as it can further weaken muscles. While assisting with ADLs (Choice B) and encouraging physical therapy (Choice D) are important aspects of care, the priority for a client with ALS is to prevent complications related to swallowing and nutrition.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.

4. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

5. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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