ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
- B. Lung function testing
- C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
- D. Assessment of arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.
2. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Pain and tissue damage
- C. Increased limb function
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.
3. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
4. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Nephrotoxicity
- C. Cardiotoxicity
- D. Pulmonary toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.
5. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?
- A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
- B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
- C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
- D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.
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