ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:
- A. eosinophils
- B. neutrophils
- C. monocytes
- D. cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.
2. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?
- A. Serotonin receptors
- B. Uric acid metabolism
- C. Liver function
- D. Cardiac function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.
3. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Free radicals
- C. Ischemia
- D. Chemical toxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.
4. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
5. A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What should the nurse emphasize about the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures effectiveness.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary emphasis of consistent timing is on hormone levels and effectiveness, not on reducing breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because while consistent absorption is a factor, the main focus is on maintaining stable hormone levels. Choice D is incorrect as missing doses can significantly impact contraceptive efficacy.
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