ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:
- A. eosinophils
- B. neutrophils
- C. monocytes
- D. cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.
2. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?
- A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
- B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
- C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
- D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.
3. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.
5. A client arrives with symptoms of stroke. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Pupil reaction
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical first step in evaluating a potential stroke. Changes in the level of consciousness can indicate the severity and location of brain damage, helping to guide immediate interventions. Assessing blood pressure, pupil reaction, and heart rate are also important aspects of the assessment in a suspected stroke patient. However, the priority is to quickly determine the client's level of consciousness to assess their neurological status.
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