Nursing Elites

1. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:

• A. eosinophils
• B. neutrophils
• C. monocytes
• D. cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.

2. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Pernicious anemia
• C. Goodpasture syndrome
• D. Transfusion reaction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Transfusion reaction. Transfusion reaction is not an autoimmune disease because it occurs when the immune system responds to foreign blood cells, not to the body's own cells. Choices A, B, and C (Multiple sclerosis, Pernicious anemia, Goodpasture syndrome) are autoimmune diseases where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues or organs.

3. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
• C. Consuming too much food at once
• D. Improved kidney function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.

4. A healthcare provider is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficiencies (select ONE that does not apply):

• A. May develop after viral infections
• B. Develop before birth
• C. May develop following immunosuppressive therapies
• D. Are caused by superimposed conditions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statements about secondary immunodeficiencies are that they may develop after viral infections, following immunosuppressive therapies, and are caused by superimposed conditions. Choice B ('Develop before birth') is incorrect because secondary immunodeficiencies do not develop before birth. They are acquired later in life. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.

5. After a thoracentesis on a client with a pleural effusion, which nursing intervention is most important post-procedure?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma.
• C. Monitor vital signs and respiratory status.
• D. Instruct the client to rest and limit physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma. After a thoracentesis, it is crucial to monitor for any bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture site, as this can lead to complications. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is essential but is usually a delayed concern compared to the immediate risk of bleeding post-procedure. While monitoring vital signs and respiratory status (Choice C) is important, assessing for bleeding takes precedence to address any immediate complications. Instructing the client to rest and limit physical activity (Choice D) is relevant for general post-procedure care but is not the most critical intervention in this scenario.

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