ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Design interventions for a student's individual education plan (IEP).
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Perform first aid for minor injuries.
- D. Perform scoliosis screenings for students.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.
2. A client is about to undergo surgery and is unsure about the procedure despite signing the consent. What should the nurse do?
- A. Reassure the client and proceed with the surgery.
- B. Stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon.
- C. Proceed with the surgery but document the client's concerns.
- D. Postpone the surgery until further clarification is provided.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client expresses doubts about a procedure after signing the consent form, it is crucial to stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon. This is important to ensure that the client's concerns are addressed, and there is a clear understanding of the procedure. Reassuring the client and proceeding with the surgery (choice A) may violate the client's autonomy and right to informed consent. Proceeding with the surgery but documenting the concerns (choice C) is not sufficient as the client's doubts should be resolved before proceeding. Postponing the surgery until further clarification is provided (choice D) may be necessary, but the immediate step should be to consult with the surgeon to address the client's concerns.
3. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?
- A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
- B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
- C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
- D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.
4. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?
- A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
- B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
- C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
- D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who had a total thyroidectomy and has a serum calcium level of 7.6 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Shortened QT intervals
- B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
- C. Tingling of the extremities
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tingling of the extremities. Tingling is a common symptom of hypocalcemia, which is expected with low calcium levels after a thyroidectomy. Option A, shortened QT intervals, is associated with hypercalcemia rather than hypocalcemia. Option B, hypoactive deep tendon reflexes, is not typically related to hypocalcemia. Option D, constipation, is not a common finding associated with low calcium levels.
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