ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Design interventions for a student's individual education plan (IEP).
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Perform first aid for minor injuries.
- D. Perform scoliosis screenings for students.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?
- A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count: 82,000/µL
- C. RBC count: 4.8 x 10^6/µL
- D. WBC count: 8.7 x 10^3/µL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.
3. Which immunization is typically administered at birth?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. DTaP
- C. MMR
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given at birth to protect against hepatitis B, a virus that can lead to chronic liver disease and liver cancer. This vaccination is crucial for newborns, especially those born to mothers who are carriers of hepatitis B. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because DTaP (B), MMR (C), and Varicella (D) vaccines are not typically administered at birth. DTaP is given in a series starting at 2 months, MMR is usually given around 12-15 months, and Varicella is given between 12-15 months of age.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports taking ibuprofen daily
- B. Client has a history of asthma
- C. Client reports drinking one glass of wine daily
- D. Client has a history of diverticulitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can increase the risk of bleeding during a colonoscopy due to its effects on platelet function. It is important to report this finding to the provider to consider alternative pain management options. Choices B, C, and D are not the most pertinent to report for a colonoscopy. Asthma and a history of diverticulitis are relevant medical history but do not directly impact the colonoscopy procedure. Drinking one glass of wine daily is not a concern specifically related to the colonoscopy procedure.
5. A 30-year old client experiences weight loss, abdominal distention, crampy abdominal pain, and intermittent diarrhea after the birth of her 2nd child. Diagnostic tests reveal gluten-induced enteropathy. Which foods must she eliminate from her diet permanently?
- A. Milk and dairy products
- B. Protein-containing foods
- C. Cereal grains (except rice and corn)
- D. Carbohydrates
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gluten-induced enteropathy, or celiac disease, requires the elimination of gluten-containing grains like wheat, barley, and rye. Dairy, proteins, and carbohydrates are not excluded unless the client has specific intolerances.
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