Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is teaching about chest physiotherapy (CPT) treatments to a client with COPD. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the teaching has been understood?

• A. My coughing will decrease during CPT treatments.
• B. CPT treatments will decrease my respiratory infections.
• C. I will perform postural drainage after eating meals.
• D. CPT treatments will help cure my COPD.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because chest physiotherapy (CPT) helps reduce respiratory infections by loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because coughing may temporarily increase during CPT treatments as mucus is being cleared. Choice C is incorrect because postural drainage is typically performed before meals. Choice D is incorrect because while CPT can help manage symptoms and improve lung function in COPD, it does not cure the disease.

2. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?

• A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
• B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
• C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
• D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.

3. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about how to use her new hearing aids. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client needs further instruction?

• A. I will not use hairspray if I am wearing the hearing aids
• B. I will clean the hearing aids with alcohol wipes
• C. I will change the batteries once a week
• D. I will expect the hearing aids to whistle when I cup my hand over them

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the hearing aids with alcohol wipes can damage them. It is important to use specialized cleaning tools or follow specific cleaning instructions provided by the manufacturer to prevent harm to the hearing aids. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate good understanding and appropriate care for hearing aids, indicating that the client does not need further instruction in those areas.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

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