the emergency department has been notified of a potential bioterrorism attack which action by the nurse is priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. The emergency department has been notified of a potential bioterrorism attack. Which action by the nurse is priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a potential bioterrorism attack, the priority for the nurse is to manage all patients using standard precautions. This approach ensures the safety of both patients and healthcare providers by preventing the spread of potential bioterrorism-related illnesses. Option A is incorrect because managing patient care and safety through standard precautions takes precedence. Option B is incorrect as patient transport should also be done while adhering to infection control measures. Option C is incorrect as monitoring for specific symptoms is important but not the priority when all patients need to be managed with standard precautions.

2. A client has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When instructing a client who is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should include information about stopping the medication 5 days before any planned surgeries to reduce the risk of bleeding. This is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, the frequency of administration, and the possibility of black-colored stools are not specific instructions related to clopidogrel use.

3. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What should the healthcare provider do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the calf circumference of both legs is crucial when assessing for DVT in an immobile patient. A significant increase in the circumference of one calf compared to the other suggests the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because rubbing the lower leg may dislodge a clot if present. Option B is incorrect as elastic stockings should not be removed frequently as this can increase the risk of clot formation. Option D is incorrect as dorsiflexing the foot can lead to pain and should not be done to assess for DVT.

5. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.

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