ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
- B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
- C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
- D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.
3. A client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse monitors the client for which of the following signs indicating a complication of the therapy?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Decreased hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. A fever may indicate infection, a common and serious complication of chemotherapy, requiring prompt intervention. Choice A, Alopecia, is a common side effect of chemotherapy but not a sign of a complication. Choice B, Weight gain, is not typically a sign of a complication of chemotherapy. Choice D, Decreased hemoglobin level, may occur due to chemotherapy but is not a direct sign of a complication.
4. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- B. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
- C. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
- D. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.
5. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99