Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

• A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
• C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
• D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

2. A nurse manager is planning client assignments for the day. Which client should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?

• A. A client who needs help ambulating.
• B. A client who requires complex wound care.
• C. A client who needs intravenous antibiotics.
• D. A client who is NPO and requires IV hydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ambulating a client is a non-invasive task that can be safely and effectively performed by a nursing assistant. Choice B is incorrect as complex wound care requires specialized skills usually performed by licensed nurses. Choice C involves administering intravenous antibiotics, which also requires a higher level of training and assessment skills than a nursing assistant possesses. Choice D, involving a client who is NPO and requires IV hydration, may involve further assessments and monitoring that are beyond the scope of a nursing assistant.

3. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

4. A nurse notices another nurse skipping hand hygiene. What is the appropriate course of action?

• A. Ignore the situation to maintain team harmony.
• B. Report the behavior to the supervisor.
• C. Discuss the issue with the nurse directly.
• D. Do nothing and continue with patient care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct hand hygiene is crucial for preventing the spread of infections and ensuring patient safety. When a nurse observes another healthcare worker skipping hand hygiene practices, it is essential to report this behavior to the supervisor. Reporting ensures that appropriate action is taken to address the issue and maintain a safe environment for patients. Ignoring the situation (Choice A) may compromise patient safety. Discussing the issue directly with the nurse (Choice C) may not always be effective in ensuring compliance. Doing nothing and continuing with patient care (Choice D) disregards the importance of infection control protocols.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

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