a nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction mi for the development of an acute kidney injury aki which of the f
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

2. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take is to check for orthostatic hypotension. This step is crucial as it ensures the client's safety during the transfer process. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that can occur when a person moves from a lying down position to a sitting or standing position. By checking for orthostatic hypotension before transferring the client, the nurse can prevent potential complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario as they do not address the immediate safety concern of assessing for orthostatic hypotension.

3. Which action should the nurse take to minimize the risk of medication errors?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because ensuring two nurses double-check medications before administration is a crucial step in minimizing the risk of medication errors. This practice helps in verifying the accuracy of medication orders and reducing the chances of mistakes. Choice A may not necessarily prevent errors as preparing medications ahead of time does not guarantee accuracy. Choice C, administering medications at the same time each day, is important for consistency but does not directly address the risk of errors. Choice D, relying on memory, is highly discouraged as it increases the likelihood of errors due to human forgetfulness.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

5. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.

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