ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:
- A. Defamation
- B. Assault
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.
2. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
- A. 4,500/mm³
- B. 7,000/mm³
- C. 10,000/mm³
- D. 25,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.
3. During a shift change, a nurse is receiving a report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?
- A. High platelets
- B. Hypertension
- C. Lower platelets
- D. High temperatures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lower platelets can indicate a potential risk of bleeding in a postoperative client. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, can lead to increased bleeding tendencies and should be promptly reported to the healthcare team for appropriate management. Monitoring platelet levels is crucial in postoperative care to prevent complications related to inadequate clotting ability.
4. Which type of illness is characterized by severe symptoms of relatively short duration?
- A. Chronic Illness
- B. Acute Illness
- C. Pain
- D. Syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute Illness. Acute illnesses are characterized by the sudden onset of severe symptoms that typically last for a short duration. These conditions usually resolve within a defined period, unlike chronic illnesses that persist over a longer time frame. Choices C and D, Pain and Syndrome, are not specific types of illnesses but rather symptoms or clinical manifestations that can occur in various health conditions.
5. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
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