ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Why is a pulse oximeter attached to Mr. Dizon's finger?
- A. To determine if the patient's hemoglobin level is low and if he requires a blood transfusion
- B. To check the level of the patient's tissue perfusion
- C. To measure the effectiveness of the patient's anti-hypertensive medications
- D. To detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develop
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse oximeter is used to detect the oxygen saturation levels in arterial blood before the onset of hypoxemia symptoms. This device provides essential information about the effectiveness of oxygen transportation to the body's tissues. Choice A is incorrect because a pulse oximeter does not directly measure hemoglobin levels nor determine the need for a blood transfusion. Choice B is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is designed specifically to assess oxygen saturation, not tissue perfusion. Choice C is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is not used to measure the efficacy of anti-hypertensive medications, but rather to monitor oxygen levels in the blood.
2. Which mineral is a principal component of cell membranes?
- A. phosphorus
- B. magnesium
- C. iron
- D. iodine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phosphorus is the correct answer. It is a key component of cell membranes, being part of the phospholipid bilayer that provides structure and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. Magnesium, iron, and iodine do not serve as principal components of cell membranes. Magnesium is involved in various enzymatic reactions, iron is essential for oxygen transport, and iodine plays a role in thyroid hormone synthesis.
3. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?
- A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
- B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
- C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
- D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.
4. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a failure in:
- A. Electricity
- B. Inadequate supply
- C. Leg work
- D. Communication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
5. What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?
- A. Evaluates whether nursing care goals have been achieved
- B. Ensures the provision of quality nursing care
- C. Assists in selecting the appropriate nursing interventions
- D. Facilitates the creation of a nursing diagnosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.
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