ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?
- A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
- B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
- C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
- D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.
2. A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:
- A. Alcohol consumption
- B. Smoking
- C. Poor diet
- D. Environmental exposure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.
3. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:
- A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
- B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
- C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
- D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.
4. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?
- A. A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years
- B. Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe
- C. An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly
- D. An older adult female who chews gum frequently
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.
5. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?
- A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
- B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
- C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
- D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.
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