ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
- D. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol to reduce the risk of liver damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking it at night aligns with the body's natural rhythm of cholesterol production, optimizing its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects by affecting the metabolism of atorvastatin. Choice C is incorrect as taking atorvastatin in the morning does not maximize its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol consumption can increase the risk of liver damage when combined with atorvastatin.
2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
3. The canola plant's genome is altered to produce an herbicide-resistant crop. The canola oil produced from this crop is an example of a:
- A. pesticide-free food.
- B. saturated fat food.
- C. genetically modified food.
- D. product that is pure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: genetically modified food. Canola plants with altered genomes to be herbicide-resistant are an example of genetically modified organisms (GMOs). Genetically modified foods have their genetic material modified for various purposes, such as enhancing resistance to pests, herbicides, or improving nutritional content. Choice A, 'pesticide-free food,' is incorrect because genetic modification does not necessarily make the food pesticide-free. Choice B, 'saturated fat food,' is incorrect as it does not relate to the genetic modification of the canola plant. Choice D, 'product that is pure,' is too vague and does not specifically address the genetic modification aspect of the canola plant.
4. Which of the following is not included in the care plan of a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?
- A. Daily structured schedule
- B. Positive reinforcement for performing activities of daily living
- C. Stimulating environment
- D. Use of validation techniques
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the care plan for a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving Alzheimer's type dementia, a stimulating environment is not included as it can potentially increase confusion. Therefore, it is important to provide a familiar, structured, and predictable environment to reduce stress and disorientation. Daily structured schedules help in maintaining routine and familiarity, positive reinforcement encourages engagement in activities, and validation techniques help in communicating effectively with the client by acknowledging their feelings and reality orientation.
5. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
- D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.
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