Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client's son based on the information provided?

• A. Risk for other-directed violence
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Caregiver role strain
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Caregiver role strain.' In the scenario presented, the son expresses that his father's constant confusion, incontinence, and tendency to wander are intolerable. These challenges indicate that the son is experiencing strain in his role as a caregiver. 'Risk for other-directed violence' is not appropriate because there is no indication of violent behavior. 'Disturbed sleep pattern' is not the most relevant nursing diagnosis given the information provided. 'Social isolation' is not the most appropriate choice as the son's concerns are related to the challenges of caregiving, not isolation.

2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.

3. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?

• A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
• B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
• C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
• D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.

4. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?

• A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
• B. It suppresses T-cell production.
• C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
• D. It stimulates antibody production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.

5. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?

• A. General visceral efferent neurons
• B. Preganglionic neurons
• C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
• D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.

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