a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations what should the nurse suggest

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

A. Limit protein intake
B. Limit potassium intake
C. Restrict sodium intake
D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.

2. What does continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicate?

A. An air leak
B. Normal chest tube function
C. A blocked chest tube
D. Continuous drainage from the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This occurs when air is entering the system from the outside, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not a sign of normal chest tube function. Choice C is incorrect because a blocked chest tube would typically exhibit no bubbling or fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Choice D is incorrect as continuous drainage would not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber.

3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Elevated ST segments
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

4. What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?

A. Lower the height of the enema container
B. Stop the enema procedure
C. Remove the enema tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.

5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.