ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What dietary changes should be implemented for a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large meals before bedtime
- C. Consume liquids with meals
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods because they can increase gastric acid production, exacerbating symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms due to lying down with a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, promoting acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for GERD patients, as it may temporarily soothe symptoms but can ultimately stimulate acid production.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
- B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
- D. Verify the prescription with the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.
3. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Increase exercise to reduce stress
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can exacerbate gastritis symptoms by irritating the stomach lining. Sodium (choice B) is not directly related to gastritis symptoms. Increasing exercise (choice C) can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly impact gastritis. Drinking milk (choice D) can provide temporary relief for some individuals with gastritis due to its coating effect, but it is not a universal recommendation as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.
4. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Consume liquids between meals
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.
5. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access