Nursing Elites

1. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

2. The nurse is educating a patient who was discharged from the hospital after having cardiac surgery one week ago. The nurse recognizes the patient understands medication management when he/she states:

• A. I need to take my Lisinopril daily to reduce my risk of heart failure
• B. I only need to take the metoprolol when I feel my heart skip a beat
• C. I should carry my nitroglycerin pills in my pocket at all times
• D. I should only take the pain pills when my pain is really bad

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is commonly prescribed post-cardiac surgery to manage blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart failure. It is important for the patient to take Lisinopril daily as prescribed to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as metoprolol is usually prescribed on a regular schedule to manage heart conditions, not just when symptoms occur. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be kept in a cool, dry place, not in a pocket where it could be exposed to heat or moisture. Choice D is incorrect as pain medication should be taken as prescribed for adequate pain control, not just when pain is severe.

3. The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hemoglobin level.' Pallor of the skin and nail beds is a sign of anemia, which is characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Anemia is a condition where there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Checking the hemoglobin level would help confirm the presence and severity of anemia, guiding further diagnostic and treatment interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because platelet count, neutrophil count, and white blood cell count are not typically associated with the pallor of the skin and nail beds, which are more indicative of an underlying anemic condition.

4. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:

• A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
• B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
• C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
• D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.

5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

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