Nursing Elites

1. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

• A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
• D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.

2. A patient is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
• B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
• C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Wash hands and avoid individuals who are ill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Washing hands and avoiding contact with individuals who are ill are crucial to reduce this risk. Choice A is incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority after a splenectomy. Choice B is incorrect as while bleeding is a concern, it is more immediate post-operatively. Choice C is incorrect as iron supplements do not specifically relate to the risk of infection post-splenectomy.

3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
• B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
• C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.' After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Proper hand hygiene and avoiding contact with sick individuals are crucial to prevent infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes, watching for excessive bleeding or bruising, and taking iron supplements are not specifically related to the increased infection risk post-splenectomy.

5. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:

• A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
• B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
• C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
• D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.

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