ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
2. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:
- A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
- B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
- C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
- D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.
3. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of
- A. iron.
- B. folic acid.
- C. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
- D. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.
4. The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
- D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.
5. The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a 'shift to the left.' Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?
- A. Cool extremities
- B. Pallor and weakness
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Low oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. When a CBC shows a 'shift to the left,' it indicates elevated levels of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands), which is a sign of infection. In response to the infection, the body increases its temperature as part of the immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cool extremities, pallor and weakness, and low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with a 'shift to the left' in a CBC; they are more indicative of other conditions or issues.
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