ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
2. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
- B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
- C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
- D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.
3. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia?
- A. Avoid intramuscular injections
- B. Check temperature every 4 hours
- C. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet
- D. Place a 'No Visitors' sign on the door
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check temperature every 4 hours.' Neutropenic patients have a weakened immune system due to low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight infections. Monitoring the patient's temperature every 4 hours is crucial because the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is often a fever. This allows for early detection of any potential infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding intramuscular injections, omitting fruits or vegetables from the diet, and placing a 'No Visitors' sign on the door are not specific actions directly related to managing neutropenia or monitoring for signs of infection.
4. A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had any recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and proteins?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels suggest polycythemia, which can be seen in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option A is less relevant as weight loss is not typically associated with these blood count findings. Option C is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than a respiratory issue. Option D focuses on dietary factors, which are less likely to cause such significant elevations in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as seen in this case.
5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
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