Nursing Elites

1. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

• A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
• D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.

2. A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to

• A. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
• B. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory
• C. notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms
• D. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, back pain, and difficulty breathing after the transfusion indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction, a severe transfusion reaction. The priority action in this situation is to discontinue the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications. Infusing normal saline helps maintain the patient's intravascular volume and prevent renal damage. Administering oxygen or obtaining a urine specimen is not the most urgent action and could delay essential treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should come after ensuring the patient's safety by stopping the blood transfusion.

3. A 62-year-old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory test findings to include

• A. an RBC count of 4,500,000/μL.
• B. a hematocrit (Hct) value of 38%.
• C. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices.
• D. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In chronic anemia, the hematocrit (Hct) value is a crucial indicator of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit value of 38% indicates a lower than normal level of red blood cells, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of fatigue and palpitations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low RBC count, normal RBC indices, and a hemoglobin level of 8.6 g/dL do not specifically address the decreased red blood cell mass associated with chronic anemia.

4. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to

• A. check all stools for occult blood
• B. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day
• C. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours
• D. check the temperature every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

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