Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide in patient education for a patient prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication.
• D. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder should be educated that it may take several weeks before experiencing the full therapeutic effects of the medication. This delay in onset of action is common with antidepressants like sertraline, and patients need to be aware of this to manage their expectations and continue with the treatment regimen. It's important for the patient to understand that consistent adherence to the prescribed dosage is crucial, even if the full effects are not immediately apparent. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding grapefruit, and regular blood tests are not specific education points related to the expected timeframe for therapeutic effects of sertraline.

2. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on promoting activities, adequate nutrition, hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation. Verbalizing feelings is a crucial part of therapy for clients with depression as it helps in processing emotions and seeking support. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings is not appropriate and goes against therapeutic principles.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse not include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first-line treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client with GAD should include practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, engaging in regular physical activity, and seeking support from friends and family. Benzodiazepines are not recommended as the first-line treatment due to their potential for dependence and should not be included in the discharge teaching.

5. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit, he states to a nurse: 'Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I'll look into pursuing an art degree.' How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Harm/loss
• C. Threatening
• D. Challenging

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement indicates that he views the job loss as an opportunity for growth and a new direction in life rather than a threat or harm/loss. He sees it as a challenge and is considering it positively, demonstrating resilience and adaptability in the face of adversity. Choice A, 'Irrelevant,' is incorrect as the client's response shows relevance and a positive outlook. Choice B, 'Harm/loss,' is incorrect as the client does not express a sense of harm or loss but rather opportunity. Choice C, 'Threatening,' is incorrect as the client's response does not convey fear or threat but rather a positive reframe of the situation.

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