a client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Risperidone should be taken consistently as prescribed and should not be stopped abruptly. It is essential to educate the client that discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to a worsening of symptoms or potential relapse. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of important considerations when taking risperidone, such as avoiding alcohol, taking it with food to reduce stomach upset, and being aware of the potential side effect of weight gain. Choice A suggests a misconception that the medication can be discontinued once the client feels better, which is incorrect and requires further clarification to ensure treatment adherence and effectiveness.

2. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. While auditing care plans for clients with eating disorders, the nurse realizes that a nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa as well as for a client with bulimia nervosa is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic low self-esteem is a nursing diagnosis that can be applicable to clients with both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. These eating disorders are often associated with distorted body image, feelings of inadequacy, and low self-esteem. Clients with these conditions may engage in harmful behaviors related to their self-image, making chronic low self-esteem a relevant nursing diagnosis for them.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

Similar Questions

You have been working closely with a patient for the past month. Today he tells you he is looking forward to meeting with his new psychiatrist but frowns and avoids eye contact while reporting this to you. Which of the following responses would most likely be therapeutic?
Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
During a panic attack, what is the nurse's priority intervention for a patient with panic disorder?
When patients diagnosed with schizophrenia suffer from anosognosia, they often refuse medication, believing that:

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses