Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Alogia
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

2. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia states, 'The FBI is watching me. I see their agents everywhere.' Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?

• A. You shouldn't worry about that. It's not real.
• B. I don't see any FBI agents, but it sounds like you're feeling frightened.
• C. Let's talk about something else to take your mind off of it.
• D. Why do you think the FBI is watching you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusion is important. This response acknowledges the client's fear without agreeing with the delusion. It shows empathy and understanding towards the client's emotions while not validating the delusional belief.

3. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.

4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

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