Nursing Elites

1. When a patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed escitalopram, what potential side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Insomnia
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insomnia. Escitalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly causes insomnia as a side effect. Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep when starting this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and hypertension are not typically associated with escitalopram use.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

3. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Rationalization. The client is using rationalization as a defense mechanism by justifying their excessive drinking as a way to relax due to working hard to provide for their family. Rationalization involves creating logical excuses to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others. Regression is reverting to an earlier stage of development in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

4. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss the voices.
• B. Instruct the client to listen to music to drown out the voices.
• C. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• D. Distract the client from the voices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss the voices is the most appropriate nursing intervention when a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. By discussing the voices, the client can feel heard, understood, and supported. It allows the client to express their experiences, which can help in processing and coping with the hallucinations. This intervention promotes therapeutic communication and builds a trusting nurse-client relationship, which is essential in providing effective care for individuals with schizophrenia. Choice B is incorrect because instructing the client to listen to music to drown out the voices does not address the underlying issue and may not be effective in managing auditory hallucinations. Choice C is incorrect because telling the client that the voices are not real can invalidate the client's experiences and feelings, leading to further distress. Choice D is incorrect as solely distracting the client from the voices does not help in addressing the hallucinations or supporting the client in dealing with their symptoms.

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