ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which is an example of the ego defense mechanism of regression?
- A. A mother blames the teacher for her child's failure in school.
- B. A teenager becomes hysterical after seeing a friend killed in a car accident.
- C. A woman wants to marry a man exactly like her beloved father.
- D. An adult throws a temper tantrum when he does not get his own way.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development for comfort. In this case, an adult throwing a temper tantrum is regressing to a childlike behavior when faced with not getting their way, which is a form of seeking comfort associated with earlier development. Choices A, B, and C do not exemplify regression. Blaming the teacher, becoming hysterical after a traumatic event, or seeking a partner similar to a beloved father are not instances of reverting to earlier developmental stages to cope with stress or conflict.
2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
3. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for the day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?
- A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
- B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
- C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
- D. That must have been very frightening, but we'll check on you at night and you'll be safe.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Response C is the most therapeutic as it shows empathy and encourages the patient to express their feelings and share more about their experience. By actively listening and inviting the patient to talk, the nurse creates a supportive environment that can help the patient feel heard and understood, which is essential in building trust and rapport in therapeutic communication with individuals experiencing schizophrenia.
4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Dopamine
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.
5. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?
- A. Delusions of grandeur
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
- D. Periods of excessive sleeping
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.
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