Nursing Elites

1. Which is an example of the ego defense mechanism of regression?

• A. A mother blames the teacher for her child's failure in school.
• B. A teenager becomes hysterical after seeing a friend killed in a car accident.
• C. A woman wants to marry a man exactly like her beloved father.
• D. An adult throws a temper tantrum when he does not get his own way.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development for comfort. In this case, an adult throwing a temper tantrum is regressing to a childlike behavior when faced with not getting their way, which is a form of seeking comfort associated with earlier development. Choices A, B, and C do not exemplify regression. Blaming the teacher, becoming hysterical after a traumatic event, or seeking a partner similar to a beloved father are not instances of reverting to earlier developmental stages to cope with stress or conflict.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) performing ritualistic handwashing?

• A. Allow the client to continue the ritualistic behavior initially
• B. Immediately stop the client from performing the ritual
• C. Encourage the client to perform the ritual more quickly
• D. Provide a distraction to interrupt the ritual

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client with OCD performing ritualistic handwashing, the nurse should initially allow the client to continue the behavior. Abruptly stopping the behavior or providing a distraction can heighten the client's anxiety. Encouraging the client to perform the ritual more quickly does not address the underlying issue of OCD and may exacerbate their anxiety. Providing a distraction to interrupt the ritual may not be effective in the long term and could lead to increased distress. Gradual limits should be established over time to help the client manage and reduce the ritualistic behavior effectively.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

4. A client is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety. Which is an example of an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to pace in a safe environment.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings.
• C. Help the client identify the cause of anxiety.
• D. Provide a distraction for the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the client to pace in a safe environment is an appropriate nursing intervention for managing moderate anxiety levels. Allowing pacing provides the client with a physical outlet for their anxiety and can help them release nervous energy without increasing distress. It promotes movement and can aid in reducing feelings of restlessness or agitation. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is more suitable for addressing emotional aspects of anxiety rather than providing an immediate physical outlet. Helping the client identify the cause of anxiety (Choice C) may be more appropriate for long-term management but may not address the immediate need for physical release. Providing a distraction (Choice D) may not directly address the physical needs associated with moderate anxiety levels.

5. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

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