Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

2. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
• B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Medication adherence will be mandated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.

3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to detect and manage this side effect to prevent associated health risks such as diabetes and cardiovascular issues. Hypotension (choice B) is not a common side effect of olanzapine. Olanzapine is more likely to cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Hair loss (choice C) and hyperthyroidism (choice D) are not typically associated with olanzapine use.

4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.

5. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
• B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
• C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

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