ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient with hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower blood pressure. What should the nurse advise the patient to avoid in their diet?
- A. Vinegar
- B. Apples
- C. Salt substitutes
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients taking ACE inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes as they often contain potassium, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood that can be dangerous, especially for patients on ACE inhibitors. Vinegar, apples, and tomatoes do not pose a risk for patients taking ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid salt substitutes to prevent potential complications.
2. A healthcare provider is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?
- A. Lowered heart rate
- B. Increased myocardial contractility
- C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
- D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, acts on beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased myocardial contractility. This positive inotropic effect results in improved cardiac output, which is beneficial for a client with severe heart failure. Dopamine does not typically cause lowered heart rate, decreased conduction through the AV node, or vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels at low doses.
3. What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.
4. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Pamidronate to a client who has bone pain related to cancer. Which of the following precautions should the healthcare professional take when administering pamidronate?
- A. Inspect the IV site for redness and irritation when changing the intravenous patch.
- B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
- C. Instruct the client to sit upright or stand for 30 min following intravenous administration.
- D. Watch for manifestations of anaphylaxis for 20 min after intramuscular administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pamidronate is administered through intravenous (IV) infusion. As this medication can be irritating to veins, the healthcare professional should carefully assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during administration to prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via intradermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the administration of Pamidronate. Choice D is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered intramuscularly.
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