ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
- C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
- D. Decreased polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.
2. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Somnolence
- B. Constipation
- C. Fluid retention
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Somnolence.' Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, which is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. It is a rare but very serious adverse effect caused by metformin and should be reported to the provider promptly to prevent further complications.
3. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Eye damage
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.
4. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.
5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
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