ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, recent use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for using sildenafil.
2. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?
- A. The serum level of carbamazepine will be increased.
- B. The patient's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
- C. The patient's antiseizure medication should be changed.
- D. The patient will require a higher dosage of itraconazole (Sporanox).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.
3. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?
- A. Suprapubic pain
- B. Periorbital edema
- C. Low serum creatinine level
- D. Palpable kidneys
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.
4. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease include:
- A. constipation with gastric distension.
- B. bradycardia and bradypnea.
- C. hyperthermia and tachycardia.
- D. constipation and lethargy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thyroid crisis in Graves' disease typically presents with hyperthermia (high body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are a result of excessive thyroid hormone production and can lead to life-threatening complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation with gastric distension, bradycardia and bradypnea, and constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.
5. While in an induced coma for 3 weeks, a badly burned firefighter awakens and thanks his son for singing Happy Birthday to him a week earlier. Which part of the brain is responsible for allowing him to hear and comprehend while comatose?
- A. Cerebellum
- B. Thalamus
- C. Temporal lobe
- D. Occipital lobe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, allowing the patient to hear and comprehend while in a coma. The cerebellum is primarily associated with coordination and balance, not auditory processing. The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not specifically responsible for auditory processing. The occipital lobe is mainly involved in processing visual information, not auditory functions.
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