Nursing Elites

1. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

2. Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Gingival erythema
• B. Necrosis of interdental papilla
• C. Marasmus
• D. Metallic taste and foul odor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

3. A client is being prepared for placement of a catheter for total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following access sites should be planned for catheter insertion?

• A. Left antecubital vein
• B. Right subclavian vein
• C. Right femoral artery
• D. Left arm radial artery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the Right subclavian vein. When preparing a client for placement of a catheter for total parenteral nutrition, the preferred access site for catheter insertion is the subclavian vein due to its large size, central location, and lower risk of infection compared to peripheral veins. The other options provided (Left antecubital vein, Right femoral artery, and Left arm radial artery) are not suitable access sites for central venous catheter insertion for total parenteral nutrition.

4. For a patient on a ketogenic diet, which macronutrient is primarily increased?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Protein
• C. Fats
• D. Fiber

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fats. A ketogenic diet is characterized by high fat intake, moderate protein intake, and very low carbohydrate intake. This diet aims to shift the body's metabolism to use fat as the primary source of energy instead of carbohydrates. Increasing fat intake while reducing carbohydrates is essential for achieving and maintaining a state of ketosis. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the macronutrient adjustments required for a ketogenic diet.

5. A caregiver is teaching a parent about recommended protein intake for a toddler. Which of the following food selections is equivalent to 1 oz of protein?

• A. 2 tbsp peanut butter
• B. ½ cup peas
• C. 1 slice of bread
• D. 1 scrambled egg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One scrambled egg is equivalent to 1 oz of protein, making it a suitable choice for a toddler's diet. A ½ cup of peas (choice B) does not provide 1 oz of protein but is still a good source of protein. 2 tbsp of peanut butter (choice A) contains more than 1 oz of protein. 1 slice of bread (choice C) typically provides less protein than 1 oz.

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