ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
2. Medications that reduce stomach acidity can impair the absorption of _____.
- A. calcium
- B. iron
- C. vitamin D
- D. vitamin C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reduced stomach acidity impairs the absorption of iron, as an acidic environment is necessary for optimal iron absorption in the stomach. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as medications that reduce stomach acidity typically do not significantly affect the absorption of calcium, vitamin D, or vitamin C.
3. Which type of nutritional deficiency results from inadequate absorption?
- A. Unmeasurable
- B. Primary deficiency
- C. Secondary deficiency
- D. Codependent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary deficiency. A nutritional deficiency resulting from decreased intake is called a primary deficiency. On the other hand, a secondary deficiency refers to a vitamin deficiency caused by inadequate absorption or use, increased requirements, excretion, or destruction. Choice A, 'Unmeasurable,' is incorrect as it does not describe a type of nutritional deficiency. Choice B, 'Primary deficiency,' is incorrect as it refers to a deficiency caused by decreased intake, not inadequate absorption. Choice D, 'Codependent,' is incorrect as it is unrelated to the context of nutritional deficiencies.
4. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:
- A. Soften and efface the cervix
- B. Numb cervical pain receptors
- C. Prevent cervical lacerations
- D. Stimulate uterine contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. What type of drug is lamivudine, used for the management of HIV infection?
- A. CCR5 antagonist
- B. fusion inhibitor
- C. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- D. protease inhibitor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lamivudine belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), making choice C the correct answer. NRTIs like lamivudine work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, an essential component for the HIV virus to replicate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lamivudine does not function as a CCR5 antagonist, fusion inhibitor, or protease inhibitor in the management of HIV infection.
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