ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor
- C. Dehydration can increase gastroesophageal reflux
- D. Dehydration is caused by a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.
3. Your patient has a retractable gastric peptic ulcer and has had a gastric vagotomy. Which factor increases as a result of vagotomy?
- A. Peristalsis.
- B. Gastric acidity.
- C. Gastric motility.
- D. Gastric pH.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a gastric vagotomy, the gastric pH increases as a result of reduced acid secretion.
4. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
- B. Lung crackles
- C. Cool, dry skin
- D. Respiratory depression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.
5. A nurse is teaching a nutrition class for clients who have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse include about management of acute illness?
- A. Consume carbs every 3-4 hrs
- B. Decrease fluid intake to 1000 mL per day
- C. Monitor blood glucose twice per day
- D. Check urine for ketones every 24 hrs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is to 'Consume carbs every 3-4 hours.' During acute illness, it is important to maintain a consistent carbohydrate intake to help manage blood glucose levels for clients with type 2 diabetes. This frequent consumption can prevent hypoglycemia and provide energy needed during illness. Decreasing fluid intake (choice B) is not recommended during acute illness, as hydration is crucial to prevent complications. Monitoring blood glucose (choice C) more frequently than twice a day is necessary during acute illness. Checking urine for ketones (choice D) should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours during illness to monitor for diabetic ketoacidosis.