Nursing Elites

1. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

2. A nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant who screams when the parent leaves the room. The parent begins to cry and says, 'I don't understand why my child is so upset. I've never seen my child act this way around others before.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. This is a normal, expected reaction for a child of this age.
• B. This is a response to an overstimulating environment.
• C. This is a common reaction to an overexposure to caregivers.
• D. This is a typical reaction for a child who is sick.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'This is a normal, expected reaction for a child of this age.' Separation anxiety typically peaks around 8-10 months of age, leading to distress when separated from caregivers. Choice B is incorrect because the infant's behavior is more likely due to separation anxiety rather than overstimulation. Choice C is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not related to overexposure to caregivers but rather a natural developmental stage. Choice D is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not indicative of illness but rather a normal emotional response.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about nutrition to a group of clients. The healthcare provider should include that which of the following foods contains the highest level of thiamine per serving?

• A. 1 hard-boiled egg
• B. 1 cup dried pears
• C. 1 cup whole grain wheat flour
• D. 1 cup Brussels sprouts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Whole grain wheat flour contains the highest level of thiamine per serving compared to the other options provided. Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1, is essential for energy metabolism. While eggs, dried pears, and Brussels sprouts are nutritious foods, they do not contain as high a level of thiamine as whole grain wheat flour. Therefore, the correct choice is whole grain wheat flour in this case.

4. What type of diet would most likely benefit a patient with cystic fibrosis?

• A. Low sodium
• B. Low fat
• C. Clear liquid
• D. High calorie, high protein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with cystic fibrosis often have malabsorption issues, leading to increased energy needs. A high-calorie, high-protein diet is recommended to help meet these needs, support growth, and maintain overall health. Choices A, B, and C do not address the specific dietary requirements associated with cystic fibrosis, making them less beneficial for these patients.

5. If a child has two or more pink signs, you would classify the child as having:

• A. No disease
• B. Mild form of disease
• C. Urgent Referral
• D. Very severe disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

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