Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

2. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room.
• B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
• C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
• D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

3. A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric tube. The nurse should take which most appropriate action?

• A. Measure abdominal girth.
• B. Irrigate the nasogastric tube.
• C. Continue to monitor the drainage.
• D. Notify the health care provider (HCP).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the immediate postoperative period following a gastrectomy, any bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube is concerning and requires prompt evaluation. This could indicate potential complications such as bleeding from the surgical site, erosion, or other postoperative issues. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is crucial to ensure that the patient receives timely assessment and intervention. The presence of blood may necessitate further diagnostic procedures, interventions, or changes in management to prevent serious complications.

4. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

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