a client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities which of the following terms is used to describe this
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Sign.' In this scenario, bilateral pitting edema is an objective finding that can be observed by others, making it a sign of heart failure. Choice A, 'Contraindication,' refers to a factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure potentially harmful. Choice C, 'Symptom,' is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the client. Choice D, 'Subjective data,' is information that is reported by the client but cannot be directly observed or measured.

2. Which term should the nurse use to document a situation in which cells increase in size and function?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertrophy is the correct term used to describe the situation in which cells increase in size and function. Atrophy (Choice A) is the opposite, indicating a decrease in cell size. Metaplasia (Choice C) refers to the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another. Hyperplasia (Choice D) involves an increase in the number of cells, not just an increase in size and function as in hypertrophy.

3. What causes type I diabetes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

4. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

5. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.

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