ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Which of the following should a patient with a history of chronic pancreatitis avoid?
- A. Low-fat dairy
- B. Lean meats
- C. High-fiber vegetables
- D. Alcohol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Alcohol. Alcohol consumption can exacerbate chronic pancreatitis due to its detrimental effects on the pancreas. Conversely, options A, B, and C: Low-fat dairy, Lean meats, and High-fiber vegetables, are generally recommended for patients with chronic pancreatitis. These dietary options are easier on the pancreas and less likely to provoke symptoms. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this context.
2. Which factor contributes to the development of bone diseases in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) due to retention?
- A. Iron
- B. Sodium
- C. Potassium
- D. Phosphorus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is phosphorus. Retention of phosphorus in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) contributes to the development of bone disorders, including osteodystrophy, because it disrupts the balance of calcium and phosphorus in the body. This imbalance leads to a variety of bone diseases. The other options - iron, sodium, and potassium - while important in the overall metabolic function, are not directly linked to the development of bone diseases in CKD patients due to retention.
3. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased vital capacity
- B. Dry skin
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Decreased mental status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malnutrition can lead to a variety of physical and mental symptoms. One common manifestation of malnutrition is a decreased mental status, which includes confusion, lethargy, and cognitive impairment. Dry skin is a typical finding in malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients needed for skin health. Heat intolerance is not a direct consequence of malnutrition. While malnutrition can affect respiratory function, it typically leads to decreased vital capacity rather than increased. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased mental status.
5. Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often constipated. Because she is aging, what physical changes predispose her to constipation?
- A. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex
- B. weakness of sphincter muscles of anus
- C. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon
- D. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower intestines
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
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