ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur.
2. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
- B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
- D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
- D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.
4. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?
- A. Risk for infection related to decreased erythropoiesis
- B. Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
- C. Powerlessness related to sequelae of renal failure
- D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to inadequate erythropoietin synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.
5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- A. B cell deficiency
- B. T cell deficiency
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. Complement deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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