Nursing Elites

1. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

2. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Decreased muscle mass
• C. Breast tenderness
• D. Increased aggression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.

3. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with

• A. uterine bleeding.
• B. cervical cancer.
• C. ovarian cancer.
• D. fibromyalgia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.

4. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

5. A woman is complaining that she feels like the room is spinning even though she is not moving. Which of the following is characteristic of benign positional vertigo?

• A. It usually occurs with a headache.
• B. Pupillary changes are common.
• C. It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
• D. Nystagmus continues even when eyes fixate on an object.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benign positional vertigo is typically triggered by changes in head position, such as bending forward or turning over in bed. This change in position leads to brief episodes of vertigo, often associated with nystagmus, which is rapid, involuntary eye movements. Pupillary changes and headaches are not typical features of benign positional vertigo, making choices B and A incorrect. Nystagmus in benign positional vertigo usually stops when the eyes fixate on an object, so choice D is also incorrect.

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