a 40 year old man has been living with hiv for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his cd4 levels a few months ago the patient has
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

2. A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is expected to decrease urinary frequency and urgency in patients with BPH by reducing prostate size. It works by inhibiting the enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which helps shrink the prostate gland. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Finasteride does not increase prostate size, blood pressure, or the risk of kidney stones.

3. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.

4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.

5. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

Similar Questions

A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?
A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?
Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses