ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.
2. An obstetrician tells a 42-year-old patient that she can have a healthy baby, but that she is of 'advanced maternal age.' The patient is so upset that she fails to listen to the rest of the doctor's advice, goes home in a huff, and immediately dyes her hair.
- A. the age of the sperm.
- B. the age of her eggs.
- C. her risk of developing diabetes.
- D. her cholesterol level, not her appearance.
Correct answer: the age of her eggs.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the age of her eggs.' As women age, the quality of their eggs decreases, leading to a higher risk of chromosomal abnormalities and infertility. This decline in egg quality is why advanced maternal age is associated with a higher risk of certain pregnancy complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern in this context is related to the age-related changes in a woman's eggs, not sperm, diabetes risk, or cholesterol levels.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain and burning around the peripheral IV site. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Apply a warm compress
- B. Discontinue the IV line
- C. Increase the IV flow rate
- D. Elevate the limb
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the IV line. When a client reports pain and burning around the peripheral IV site, it indicates possible phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The priority action is to discontinue the IV line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may worsen the inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (Choice C) can exacerbate the symptoms and elevate the risk of complications. Elevating the limb (Choice D) may provide comfort, but it does not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Therefore, the priority action is to discontinue the IV line.
4. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
- A. Smoking is the reason you are here.
- B. The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.
- C. You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?
- D. Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's anxiety and encourages reflection on his behavior. This approach can help the patient explore his feelings and thoughts about smoking in relation to his surgery, promoting self-awareness and potentially opening the door for a constructive discussion. Choices A and B are more directive and may not address the underlying anxiety and need for reflection. Choice D is also somewhat permissive about smoking before surgery, which may not be in the patient's best interest.
5. Which pediatric disorder is associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart on a chest x-ray?
- A. Tetralogy of Fallot
- B. Transposition of the great arteries
- C. Coarctation of the aorta
- D. Ventricular septal defect
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is often associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart appearance on a chest x-ray due to the characteristic heart anatomy in this condition. This appearance is caused by the combination of pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice B, Transposition of the great arteries, is incorrect because it presents with a 'egg-on-a-string' appearance on x-ray due to the abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary artery. Choice C, Coarctation of the aorta, typically presents with rib notching on x-ray. Choice D, Ventricular septal defect, does not produce the 'boot-shaped' heart appearance seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
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