Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• B. Increased risk of hot flashes
• C. Increased risk of cataracts
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.

2. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

3. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

4. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?

• A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
• B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
• C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
• D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.

5. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Free radicals
• C. Ischemia
• D. Chemical toxicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.

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