ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
- A. Immunodeficiency
- B. Autoimmunity
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Tissue-specific hypersensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe, immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE. In this scenario, the symptoms of itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties following a bee sting are indicative of anaphylaxis. Choice A, Immunodeficiency, refers to a weakened immune system's inability to protect the body from infections and diseases, which is not the case here. Choice B, Autoimmunity, involves the immune system attacking healthy cells and tissues by mistake, which is not the mechanism at play in anaphylaxis. Choice D, Tissue-specific hypersensitivity, does not accurately describe the immediate, systemic reaction seen in anaphylaxis.
2. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
- A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
- B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
- C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
- D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.
3. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?
- A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
- B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
- C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
- D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.
4. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:
- A. adrenal crisis
- B. hypercortisolism
- C. ACTH stimulation
- D. thyroid crisis
Correct answer: adrenal crisis
Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.
5. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?
- A. 1 to 2 weeks
- B. 3 to 6 weeks
- C. 4 to 12 weeks
- D. 15 to 18 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.
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