ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
- A. Immunodeficiency
- B. Autoimmunity
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Tissue-specific hypersensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe, immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE. In this scenario, the symptoms of itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties following a bee sting are indicative of anaphylaxis. Choice A, Immunodeficiency, refers to a weakened immune system's inability to protect the body from infections and diseases, which is not the case here. Choice B, Autoimmunity, involves the immune system attacking healthy cells and tissues by mistake, which is not the mechanism at play in anaphylaxis. Choice D, Tissue-specific hypersensitivity, does not accurately describe the immediate, systemic reaction seen in anaphylaxis.
2. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?
- A. White blood cell count with differential
- B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
- C. INR and aPTT
- D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.
3. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
- C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
- D. Risk for hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.
4. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?
- A. Increased urine retention
- B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.
5. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer pain relief medication.
- B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
- C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.
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