ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
- A. Immunodeficiency
- B. Autoimmunity
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Tissue-specific hypersensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe, immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE. In this scenario, the symptoms of itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties following a bee sting are indicative of anaphylaxis. Choice A, Immunodeficiency, refers to a weakened immune system's inability to protect the body from infections and diseases, which is not the case here. Choice B, Autoimmunity, involves the immune system attacking healthy cells and tissues by mistake, which is not the mechanism at play in anaphylaxis. Choice D, Tissue-specific hypersensitivity, does not accurately describe the immediate, systemic reaction seen in anaphylaxis.
2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
3. Nurse Sharie is assessing a parent who abused her child. Which of the following risk factors would the nurse expect to find in this case?
- A. Flexible role functioning between parents
- B. History of the parent having been abused as a child
- C. Single-parent home situation
- D. Presence of parental mental illness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'History of the parent having been abused as a child.' Research shows that a history of being abused as a child is a significant risk factor for child abuse. This cycle of abuse can sometimes continue from one generation to the next. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible role functioning between parents, a single-parent home situation, and the presence of parental mental illness are important factors to consider in various contexts but may not specifically indicate a higher likelihood of child abuse in this case.
4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?
- A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
- B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
- C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
- D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.
5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- C. Increased risk of bone fractures
- D. Increased risk of breast cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.
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