Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of

• A. iron.
• B. folic acid.
• C. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
• D. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient post coronary artery bypass graft who rates his/her pain as an 8 out of 10 on the subjective pain scale. Should the nurse choose to administer morphine sulfate intravenously as it has benefits to cardiac patients (select one that does not apply)?

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply
• B. Decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption
• C. Decreasing heart rate
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate, a potent opioid analgesic, can cause vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Choice A is incorrect as morphine can decrease myocardial oxygen consumption by reducing the workload of the heart. Choice B is incorrect as morphine can decrease heart rate as a side effect. Choice C is incorrect as morphine typically decreases blood pressure rather than increasing it.

3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

4. The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
• B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
• C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.

5. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

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