Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of

• A. iron.
• B. folic acid.
• C. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
• D. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.

2. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

3. A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.

4. The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy
• B. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion
• C. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band
• D. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before a transfusion as their education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would then report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). Option A is typically a nursing responsibility to ensure patient safety and avoid errors in patient identification. Option C involves cross-checking important details and ensuring accuracy, which is usually performed by nursing staff to prevent errors. Option D requires monitoring for potential adverse reactions during the transfusion, which is a nursing responsibility due to the need for assessment and intervention in case of complications.

5. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Reticulocyte count
• C. Total lymphocyte count
• D. Absolute neutrophil count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.

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