Nursing Elites

1. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:

• A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
• B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
• C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
• D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.

2. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections
• B. Check temperature every 4 hours
• C. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet
• D. Place a 'No Visitors' sign on the door

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check temperature every 4 hours.' Neutropenic patients have a weakened immune system due to low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight infections. Monitoring the patient's temperature every 4 hours is crucial because the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is often a fever. This allows for early detection of any potential infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding intramuscular injections, omitting fruits or vegetables from the diet, and placing a 'No Visitors' sign on the door are not specific actions directly related to managing neutropenia or monitoring for signs of infection.

3. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
• B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
• C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
• D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.

4. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

5. A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.

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