Nursing Elites

1. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:

• A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
• B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
• C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
• D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.

2. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

3. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

4. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to

• A. check all stools for occult blood
• B. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day
• C. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours
• D. check the temperature every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.

5. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to

• A. provide a diet high in vitamin K
• B. alternate periods of rest and activity
• C. teach the patient how to avoid injury
• D. place the patient on protective isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In severe hemolytic anemia, the priority nursing intervention is to alternate periods of rest and activity. This approach helps to balance activity levels to prevent excessive fatigue while promoting mobility and preventing complications such as muscle weakness or deconditioning. Providing a diet high in vitamin K (choice A) is not directly related to managing hemolytic anemia. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury (choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Placing the patient on protective isolation (choice D) is not indicated for hemolytic anemia, as it is not a contagious condition.

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