ATI RN
Fluid and Electrolytes ATI
1. A nurse admitting a patient with a history of emphysema reviews her past lab reports and notes that the patient's PaCO2 has been 56 to 64 mmHg. The nurse will be cautious administering oxygen because:
- A. The patient's calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
- B. The oxygen will increase the patient's intracranial pressure and create confusion.
- C. The oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
- D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. Choice A is incorrect because administering oxygen does not lead to a dramatic rise in calcium due to pituitary stimulation. Choice B is incorrect because administering oxygen does not directly increase intracranial pressure or create confusion. Choice C is incorrect because administering oxygen to a patient with emphysema and high PaCO2 levels is more likely to cause respiratory depression than hyperventilation and acidosis.
2. Which organ has the greatest effect on fluid output?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Lungs
- C. Skin
- D. Intestines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the kidneys. The kidneys are primarily responsible for regulating fluid balance by filtering blood and adjusting the volume and concentration of urine. The lungs primarily regulate gas exchange, not fluid balance. The skin plays a role in temperature regulation and protection but is not the primary organ for fluid output. The intestines are mainly involved in the absorption of nutrients and water, rather than fluid output.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders?
- A. Cimetidine
- B. Maalox
- C. Potassium chloride elixir
- D. ) Furosemide
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
4. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?
- A. Air emboli
- B. Phlebitis
- C. Infiltration
- D. Fluid overload
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.
5. While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?
- A. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning
- B. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
- C. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells
- D. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypokalemia due to the loss of gastric contents rich in potassium. Therefore, a client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning is at risk for hypokalemia. Option B is incorrect because ACE inhibitors may lead to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Option C is incorrect as receiving packed red blood cells can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in the blood product. Option D is incorrect because a serum pH level of 7.33 indicates acidosis, which is not directly associated with hypokalemia.
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