Nursing Elites

1. A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.

2. The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

• A. Monocytes 4%
• B. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 168,000/μL
• D. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/μL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A low percentage of monocytes can indicate a viral infection. This is crucial information to communicate as it suggests a specific type of infection that may require targeted treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to an infectious process and are within normal ranges, so they are not as urgent to communicate to the healthcare provider in this context.

3. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

4. The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a 'shift to the left.' Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?

• A. Cool extremities
• B. Pallor and weakness
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Low oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. When a CBC shows a 'shift to the left,' it indicates elevated levels of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands), which is a sign of infection. In response to the infection, the body increases its temperature as part of the immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cool extremities, pallor and weakness, and low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with a 'shift to the left' in a CBC; they are more indicative of other conditions or issues.

5. Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?

• A. A patient with chronic heart failure
• B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
• C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
• D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.

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