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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What is the appropriate action?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove tubing
- C. Increase the flow of enema solution
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lowering the height of the enema solution container is the appropriate action when a patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. This helps reduce the flow rate of the solution, potentially alleviating the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing tubing (Choice B) would be too abrupt and may not address the issue. Increasing the flow of enema solution (Choice C) could exacerbate the cramping by adding more pressure. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) might not provide immediate relief compared to lowering the height of the solution container.
2. What are the signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?
- A. Sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures
- B. Loss of consciousness and weakness
- C. Temporary vision loss
- D. Severe chest pain and shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.
3. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
5. What is an escharotomy, and why is it performed?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To remove fluid from a burn wound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. Choice A is the correct answer because the primary goal of an escharotomy is to prevent compartment syndrome caused by increased pressure within the affected tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily performed to reduce pain, remove necrotic tissue, or drain fluid from a burn wound, but to address the specific issue of compromised blood flow and pressure within deep burn injuries.
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