Nursing Elites

1. A patient refused a newly opened fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
• B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
• C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
• D. Document the refusal and remove the patch

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses a newly opened fentanyl patch, the nurse should ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This action ensures accountability, proper protocol, and prevents any potential diversion or misuse of the medication. Disposing of the patch in a sharps container (Choice B) is not sufficient as it does not address the need for witness accountability. Sending the patch back to the pharmacy (Choice C) may not be appropriate without proper documentation and witness. Simply documenting the refusal and removing the patch (Choice D) may lack the necessary verification of proper disposal.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pneumothorax and is being treated with a chest tube. Which of the following findings indicates that the lung has re-expanded?

• A. There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
• B. There is continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. There is tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. The drainage system is positioned at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.' In a client with a pneumothorax being treated with a chest tube, the absence of fluctuation in the water seal chamber indicates that the lung has re-expanded. This finding suggests that there is no air leak from the lung into the pleural space. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber or tidaling in the water seal chamber would suggest ongoing air leakage, indicating that the lung has not fully re-expanded. Choice D is also incorrect as the position of the drainage system does not directly indicate lung re-expansion.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
• B. Dilute the medication before administration.
• C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
• D. Administer the medication undiluted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.
• B. You should drink ginger ale with your meals.
• C. You should lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
• D. You should avoid eating between meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

Similar Questions