ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate twice daily.
- B. Encourage the client to deep breathe and cough every hour.
- C. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer every hour.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid coughing to prevent pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer every hour is crucial to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively. Incentive spirometry helps in lung expansion and prevents atelectasis, which is common after abdominal surgery. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, is important for preventing complications but does not directly address respiratory issues. Choice B, deep breathing and coughing every hour, is also beneficial but not as effective in preventing atelectasis as using an incentive spirometer. Choice D, instructing the client to avoid coughing, is incorrect as coughing helps clear secretions and prevent respiratory complications.
2. A client with COPD is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid breathing deeply while using my incentive spirometer.
- B. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. I will exercise in an area that is humid.
- D. I will use pursed-lip breathing techniques.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using pursed-lip breathing techniques is beneficial for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath by keeping airways open longer. Option A is incorrect as deep breathing while using an incentive spirometer is essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for clients with COPD. Option C is incorrect as exercising in a humid area can exacerbate breathing difficulties for clients with COPD.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
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