ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can clean the cat's litter box during pregnancy.
- B. I can visit someone with the flu after receiving the vaccine.
- C. I should take antibiotics for viral infections.
- D. I should wash my hands after gardening.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
- B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
- C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
- D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
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