Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught self-administration of insulin by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Inject air into the vial before withdrawing the insulin.
• B. Draw up the short-acting insulin first, then the long-acting insulin.
• C. Store unopened insulin vials in the freezer.
• D. Rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region. This practice helps reduce the risk of lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by fatty tissue changes due to repeated insulin injections in the same spot. By rotating sites, the client ensures better insulin absorption and prevents localized skin changes. Injecting air into the vial before withdrawing insulin (Choice A) is unnecessary and not recommended. Drawing up short-acting insulin before long-acting insulin (Choice B) is not a standard practice and can lead to errors in dosing. Storing unopened insulin vials in the freezer (Choice C) is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Melena.
• C. Pallor.
• D. Steatorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Provide reassurance to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.

4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased creatinine
• B. Increased hemoglobin
• C. Increased bicarbonate
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. You should monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.

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