Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated with finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What expected outcome should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, leading to decreased urinary frequency and urgency over several weeks or months. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is associated with another medication called minoxidil, not finasteride. Choice D is incorrect since finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

2. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

3. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?

• A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
• B. Activation of opioid receptors
• C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
• D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.

4. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Hypertensive emergency
• D. Tension headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.

5. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

• A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
• B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
• D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.

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