Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated with finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What expected outcome should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, leading to decreased urinary frequency and urgency over several weeks or months. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is associated with another medication called minoxidil, not finasteride. Choice D is incorrect since finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

2. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?

• A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
• B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
• C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
• D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.

3. What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on histologic exam?

• A. Reed-Sternberg cells
• B. Red-stained cells
• C. Human Papillomavirus
• D. B-cells and T-cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reed-Sternberg cells. Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal B-cells that are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are identified on histologic examination of lymph node biopsies from patients with Hodgkin disease. Choice B, 'Red-stained cells,' is vague and does not describe a specific feature of Hodgkin disease. Choice C, 'Human Papillomavirus,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is not caused by HPV. Choice D, 'B-cells and T-cells,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B-cells.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.

5. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Oral contraceptives can cause weight loss and increased energy levels.
• B. Oral contraceptives can cause increased appetite and weight gain.
• C. Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.
• D. Oral contraceptives have no side effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.

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