Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

• A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
• B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

2. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

3. Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?

• A. IgA
• B. IgG
• C. IgM
• D. IgE

Correct answer: C

Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to challenge the antigen during an immune response. IgM is the primary antibody produced during the initial or primary immune response. It is efficient in agglutination and complement activation, making it crucial in the early stages of defense. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation and is involved in secondary immune responses. IgE is primarily associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Therefore, IgM is the correct choice as it acts first during the immune response, while the other immunoglobulins have different roles and functions.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.

5. A client with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. The nurse should suspect which condition?

• A. Pulmonary fibrosis
• B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• C. Lung cancer
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is often associated with a chronic cough and shortness of breath, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Pulmonary fibrosis (choice A) typically presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough. Lung cancer (choice C) may present with a chronic cough, shortness of breath, and other symptoms like weight loss and hemoptysis. Pulmonary edema (choice D) presents with symptoms such as acute shortness of breath, orthopnea, and pink, frothy sputum.

Similar Questions