Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

• A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
• B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

2. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

3. A patient is prescribed testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
• B. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is recommended to minimize the risk of unintentional transfer of the medication to others, especially women and children, through skin contact. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not advised as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp or back is not appropriate as these areas are not indicated for absorption of testosterone.

4. A primiparous woman tells the nurse that she and her partner are highly reluctant to have their infant vaccinated, stating, “We've read that vaccines can potentially cause a lot of harm, so we're not sure we want to take that risk.” How should the nurse respond to this family's concerns?

• A. “Vaccinations are not without some risks, but these are far exceeded by the potential benefits they offer in preventing serious diseases.”
• B. “The potential risks of vaccinations have been investigated and determined to be minimal compared to the benefits of protecting your child from potentially life-threatening diseases.”
• C. “It is important to follow state laws regarding vaccines, but I understand your concerns. Let's discuss the specific risks and benefits of vaccines for your child.”
• D. “Vaccines indeed cause several serious adverse effects, but these are usually treated effectively, and the benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases far outweigh the risks.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When addressing concerns about vaccination, it is crucial to provide accurate information to help parents make informed decisions. Choice B is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the concerns of the family while emphasizing that the potential risks of vaccinations are minimal compared to the significant benefits of protecting the child from serious diseases. This response shows empathy towards the parents' concerns while also highlighting the importance of vaccination in preventing life-threatening illnesses. Choice A is incorrect because it does not emphasize the significant benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases, which may not effectively address the family's concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses more on state laws rather than addressing the family's specific concerns about vaccine safety. Choice D is incorrect as it may increase the family's anxiety by highlighting adverse effects without adequately emphasizing the benefits of vaccination in disease prevention.

5. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

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