ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
- A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
- B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
2. Innate resistance or immunity:
- A. Involves 'memory'
- B. Is a development of an individual's later years
- C. Is a relatively slow and specific process
- D. Depends on physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Innate resistance or immunity relies on the body's natural defenses like physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers. These barriers act as the first line of defense against pathogens and do not involve memory (choice A). Innate immunity is present from birth and does not develop over an individual's later years (choice B). Additionally, innate immunity is a rapid and nonspecific process, not a slow and specific one (choice C). Therefore, the correct answer is D.
3. A primiparous woman tells the nurse that she and her partner are highly reluctant to have their infant vaccinated, stating, “We've read that vaccines can potentially cause a lot of harm, so we're not sure we want to take that risk.” How should the nurse respond to this family's concerns?
- A. “Vaccinations are not without some risks, but these are far exceeded by the potential benefits they offer in preventing serious diseases.”
- B. “The potential risks of vaccinations have been investigated and determined to be minimal compared to the benefits of protecting your child from potentially life-threatening diseases.”
- C. “It is important to follow state laws regarding vaccines, but I understand your concerns. Let's discuss the specific risks and benefits of vaccines for your child.”
- D. “Vaccines indeed cause several serious adverse effects, but these are usually treated effectively, and the benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases far outweigh the risks.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When addressing concerns about vaccination, it is crucial to provide accurate information to help parents make informed decisions. Choice B is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the concerns of the family while emphasizing that the potential risks of vaccinations are minimal compared to the significant benefits of protecting the child from serious diseases. This response shows empathy towards the parents' concerns while also highlighting the importance of vaccination in preventing life-threatening illnesses. Choice A is incorrect because it does not emphasize the significant benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases, which may not effectively address the family's concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses more on state laws rather than addressing the family's specific concerns about vaccine safety. Choice D is incorrect as it may increase the family's anxiety by highlighting adverse effects without adequately emphasizing the benefits of vaccination in disease prevention.
4. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?
- A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
- B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
- C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
- D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.
5. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Migraine
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Hypertensive emergency
- D. Tension headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.
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