ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A 56-year-old woman has been experiencing memory loss and confusion for the past year. The client is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which finding is most characteristic of this disease?
- A. Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain
- B. Demyelination of neurons in the brain
- C. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques
- D. Formation of Lewy bodies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain. These plaques are formed from the buildup of beta-amyloid protein fragments between nerve cells. Choice A, neurofibrillary tangles, are a hallmark of another neurodegenerative disease called Alzheimer's disease. Choice B, demyelination of neurons, is more characteristic of diseases like multiple sclerosis. Choice D, formation of Lewy bodies, is associated with Lewy body dementia, not Alzheimer's disease.
2. A patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of IV ganciclovir 3 days ago. When reviewing this patient's most recent blood work, what abnormality should the nurse most likely attribute to the use of this drug?
- A. Hemoglobin 17 g/dL (high normal)
- B. INR 3.8 (high)
- C. Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low)
- D. Leukocytes 11,900/mm3 (high)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low). Ganciclovir, used to treat cytomegalovirus, is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia). This condition can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with ganciclovir therapy. High hemoglobin levels (choice A) are not commonly seen with ganciclovir treatment. INR elevation (choice B) is associated with coagulation abnormalities, which are not a typical side effect of ganciclovir. Elevated leukocyte count (choice D) is not a common consequence of ganciclovir use.
3. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
- A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
- B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
- C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
- D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.
4. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. An autoimmune disorder
- B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
- C. An increase in intracranial pressure
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.
5. A male patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What specific instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the safe use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to avoid taking nitrates while on sildenafil (Viagra). Combining sildenafil with nitrates can result in severe hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take sildenafil at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as taking sildenafil with milk has not been shown to enhance its absorption.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access