Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

2. An older adult man has moved to a long-term care facility, and the nurse is performing medication reconciliation. The resident's current medication regimen includes alfuzosin (Uroxatral). After considering the most likely indication for this drug, what potential problem should the nurse include in the resident's interdisciplinary plan of care?

• A. Impaired urinary elimination
• B. Ineffective sexual pattern
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Functional urinary incontinence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Alfuzosin is commonly prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to sexual dysfunction in older men. It is important to include this potential problem in the interdisciplinary plan of care to address the impact of the medication on the resident's sexual health. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while alfuzosin can affect urinary function, the primary concern related to this medication in this scenario is sexual dysfunction due to its indication for BPH.

3. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

4. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?

• A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
• B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
• C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
• D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.

5. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

• A. glycoprotein
• B. dystrophin
• C. troponin
• D. actinomyosin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

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