ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?
- A. Collagenase
- B. Fluid exudate
- C. Lymphocytic margination
- D. Anaerobic glycolysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.
2. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
- A. Excessive growth in height
- B. Signs of puberty
- C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.
3. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:
- A. cerebral cortex.
- B. somatic nervous system.
- C. limbic system.
- D. autonomic nervous system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.
4. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
- A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
- B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
- C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
- D. An incision from an open appendectomy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
5. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
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