Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing the purpose/action of neurotransmitters as they interact with different receptors, the nursing instructor gives an example using acetylcholine. When acetylcholine is released at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium of the heart, it is:

• A. positively charged.
• B. inhibitory.
• C. overstimulated.
• D. dormant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetylcholine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter at the sinoatrial node. It slows down the heart rate by decreasing the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the heart's natural pacemaker. Neurotransmitters do not have a charge, so choice A is incorrect. Choice C is wrong as overstimulation is not a characteristic of acetylcholine at the sinoatrial node. Choice D is also incorrect because acetylcholine actively influences heart rate regulation when released at the sinoatrial node.

2. What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

3. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Leukotrienes
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections. When there is a breach in the skin like in this scenario, neutrophils are quickly recruited to the site of injury to phagocytize and kill bacteria. Eosinophils are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions, making choice A incorrect. Leukotrienes are lipid mediators involved in inflammation but are not cells, so choice C is incorrect. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and play a role in immune response, but they are not the first cells to arrive at the site of a bacterial infection, making choice D incorrect.

4. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.

5. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

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